While I have studied in the Bible, I realize a major problem with Christianity is deciding which  method of revelation was used for the quotes. People point at seeming anachronisms for telling when something happens, yet these anachronisms would mean little when written in the writings of a prophet of God. The literal-ness of some parts of the Bible seem symbolic, but how was it seen? John points to a vision, as does Daniel. Was this a dream or direct vision of sorts or were they literally seeing the words or were they directly dictated what to write? These problems also point to the LDS church and its origins, which I have reviewed some in my undergraduate work and am doing a paper now on other Mormons. The fact that Joseph Smith references Jesus Christ in parts of the Book of Mormon is little trouble to me. How did Joseph Smith receive the revelation through the seer stones? What did he see? We don’t know, so maybe a symbol referencing the Messiah or a word representing same was written in 1820 language by an 1820 Joseph Smith. The same reference can be said to references to Jesus in the book of Isaiah. Christians often cite Isaiah for proof of Jesus’ Messiah-hood. The problem with this belief is the same as the book of Mormon points out: would we have seen Jesus as a Second Temple era Jew? I believe not. I believe we see Isaiah through 20-21st century eyes and place two plus two together. Same with Joseph Smith presenting the Book of Mormon.

Note: I am a former Mormon and have become Evangelical.

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